I’m legitimately trying to gain a better understanding of this. From what I’ve read, there’s no obligation under Swedish law for an employer to enter a CBA, but Swedish law permits industrial actions, e.g. strikes and sympathetic strikes, which will likely eventually force a company to accept a CBA (and I get the sense that this has become “the way it’s done” perhaps because the Swedish legislature so lightly regulates labor, leading to the CBA becoming the expectation). So even if acceptance of a CBA is not the written law, it’s basically a de facto law since a company can essentially be forced to accept it. Is that more or less accurate? And it sounds like 90% of employees in Sweden participate in a CBA. Can anyone chime in on what might characterize the remaining 10%?
I’m legitimately trying to gain a better understanding of this. From what I’ve read, there’s no obligation under Swedish law for an employer to enter a CBA, but Swedish law permits industrial actions, e.g. strikes and sympathetic strikes, which will likely eventually force a company to accept a CBA (and I get the sense that this has become “the way it’s done” perhaps because the Swedish legislature so lightly regulates labor, leading to the CBA becoming the expectation). So even if acceptance of a CBA is not the written law, it’s basically a de facto law since a company can essentially be forced to accept it. Is that more or less accurate? And it sounds like 90% of employees in Sweden participate in a CBA. Can anyone chime in on what might characterize the remaining 10%?