The other day, I was arguing with someone israel and Palestine, and they brought up the whole “everybody has done settler colonialism before” trope. While it’s an idiotic argument even if true (directly contradicting their whole “rules based international order” sthick), it did get me wondering.
I’ve assumed up until now that settler colonialism is a phenomena unique to the capitalist phase of history, but how true is that exactly?
Can you elaborate more on the differences?
It’s a pretty serious historical investigation. I’m not an actual historian, I can only gesture to the words of world systems theorists. I just do takes and book reports for now. Not a real Marxist.
At least when it comes to imperialism, you should read lenin’s imperialism, the highest stage of capitalism to understand modern imperialism. Modern imperialism is a distinctly capitalist phenomena.
I’ve read that work of Lenin, but I haven’t read it in years, and I was hoping if you had an in-depth analysis of pre-modern colonialism. But I understand.
I don’t know anything about pre-modern colonialism. That’s why I asked this question in the first place.