At what point does attacking play start? To my understanding, when you’re attacking, and there is any contact, deliberate or not, with the ball from the attackers hand/arm in the build up, it’s deemed a handball. I mean, they were reviewing Haaland’s second goal for handball in case it brushed his elbow even though if there was contact, it would have done nothing to assist him in scoring that goal. Then, when defending, it has to be a deliberate handball or your hand is in an unnatural position when it hits the ball. Distance between hand and ball from when the ball is struck and speed of that ball is also considered. All well and good.
But now, same game, Chelsea vs City. City have the ball with their goalkeeper who kicks it against Walkers hand. If they had been defending and a Chelsea player kicked it against his hand, no penalty or free kick. Fair enough considering the above criteria. But if City had possession wouldn’t that then be an attacking phase? And if so, wouldn’t ANY handball be a handball?
I’m a high school and college ref. We don’t differentiate between attacking / defending when considering a hand ball. My rule of thumb, regardless of the written rule, generally speaking is the did the hand play the ball or did the ball play the hand. And if the ball played the hand, was the hand in a natural position and did the offender have time / ability to move hand or play the ball some other way. That’s always been my criteria for deciding a handball.
This is what the rule should be, but unfortunately IFAB bizarrely changed it for VAR and TV…